“Except as provided in this paragraph, the individual health insurance issuer offering such coverage does not enroll any individual in such coverage if the first effective date of coverage is on or after the first day of Y1.” – excerpt from H.R. 3200 (the healthcare bill)
Correct me if I’m reading this wrong, but doesn’t that back date the law’s effectiveness to January 1, 2009? Let’s say I took out a policy on February 1, 2009. If this bill becomes law, would it render my policy illegal?
“No bill of attainder or ex post facto Law shall be passed.” – U.S. Constitution: Article 1, Section 9. An ex post facto law is a retroactive law, that is, one that makes something illegal before the law was passed.
Could someone explain to me how this is not an unconstitutional ex post facto law? If my reading of the bill is correct, it would render any policy made on or after January 1, 2009 null and void after the fact.